Please excuse me for reviving such an old thread, but I was reading this in the archives and made a few quick physics calculations based on the weight reductions made to the pistons, and I came up with some numbers that are surprising enough that I thought it was worthy to post. The numbers were so surprising actually, that I think I could have made a mistake and wanted some second opinions.
So here goes for the calculations:
Lets assume you have an L28 crank spinning 6000 RPM. That correlates to a maximum piston speed of 24.8 m/s. I used the equation v=rw, with one rotation being 2pi radians, r is half the stroke so 39.5 mm (0.0395 m).
(6000 Rot/min)*(2pi rad/rot)*(1 min/60 s) = 628 rad/sec = w
v = rw = (0.0395 meters/rad)*(628 rad/sec) = 24.8 meters/sec
By removing 150 grams (0.150 kg) from the pistons, and using the kinetic energy equation KE=1/2mv^2, the kinetic energy of a piston at 6000 RPM (24.8 m/s) is REDUCED by 46.13 Joules (J).
(1/2)*(0.150 kg)*(24.8 m/s)^2 = 46.13 J
The piston decellerates from full speed to a complete stop at TDC. This repeats for BDC. So for each engine rotation, the piston loses all of its kinetic energy two times. So in this case, the DIFFERENCE IN ENERGY CONSUMED by accelerating the pistons after weight reduction is 2*46.13 J = 92.26 J. At 6000 RPM, this happens 100 times per second, and with 6 pistons this leads to:
(92.26 J/rotation)*(100 rotations/second)*(6) = 55,356 J/s = 55,356 Watts
1 HP = 746 Watts, so:
(55,356 Watts)*(1 HP/746 Watts) = 74.20 HP ?!?!
Basically this is saying that the power required to accelerate 150 grams from rest to 24.8 m/s...repeated 200 times per second...and multiplying this times 6 for each piston...is equal to 74.20 HP. Thats the DIFFERENCE in power required at 6000 RPM after removing 150 grams from each piston.
Can this number be accurate? Judging by gut instinct, 74 HP just seems like A LOT of power saved by lightening the pistons by that much.
Is reducing the reciprocating mass really that important for building high performance engines? If somebody can see a mistake I made...please point it out. But if this is actually true...all I can say is thats FRIGGIN SWEET!!!
I could be making a mistake in my reasoning based on how the piston, crank and rods exchange kinetic energy as a system:
When the piston is at maximum speed halfway up the stroke, both it and the rod are traveling straight up and down at exactly that instant. When the piston stops at either TDC or BDC, the rod is swinging over with its max rotational speed. But the energy of the rod at TDC or BDC can't be greater than its energy at max piston speed...so that can't be what makes up the difference.
When the piston accelerates, its taking energy away from the crank. But when the piston decellerates...is it giving energy back to the crank? I think that could be the conceptual issue that this whole thing hinges on.